Treatment of chronic autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura with monoclonal anti-D

BACKGROUND: The platelet count increases transiently after treatment with polyclonal anti-D in about 50 percent of D+ patients with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (AITP). The effect is usually attributed to macrophage Fc-receptor blockade by antibody-coated red cells. As polyclonal anti-D is in limited supply, prospective testing was performed on a monoclonal anti-D (MoAb D) in such patients. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: Seven D+ patients with chronic AITP received MoAb D intravenously at doses of 47 to 95 microg per kg of body weight. Response was assessed by studying platelet count increment. Hemolysis and red cell-bound MoAb D were measured before and after MoAb D administration. RESULTS: MoAb D red cell binding was demonstrated in all patients at a ratio higher than that observed in AITP patients successfully treated with polyclonal anti-D. However, little or no platelet count increment was observed in six patients, while a transient response was observed in only one (platelet count 97 x 10(9)/L before MoAb D infusion and 163 x 10(9)/L 4 days later). Furthermore, because five patients showed signs of hemolysis and two became anemic, higher doses of MoAb D should be used only with caution in patients with AITP. CONCLUSION: The MoAb D used in this study cannot be proposed as an alternative treatment for patients with AITP.     

Postembryonic neurogenesis in the central nervous system of the tobacco hornworm, Manduca sexta. III. Spatial and temporal patterns of proliferation

Postembryonic neurogenesis leads to a dramatic increase in the number of functional neurons within the segmental ganglia of the moth, Manduca sexta. These adult-specific neurons are generated during larval life by segment-specific arrays of individually identifiable stem cells, or neuroblasts (Nbs). By the end of the feeding larval stage, each Nb has generated a discrete nest of progeny, which ranges in size from less than 10 to more than 70 progeny. The sizes of these identifiable nests of progeny vary in a segment-specific manner, with the thoracic nests containing a greater number of progeny compared with their homologues in the simpler abdominal ganglia. In order to describe those factors that influence the size of the post-embryonic neuronal lineages, we examined the spatial and temporal pattern of postembryonic neurogenesis in the segmental ganglia of Manduca. The rates at which the identifiable nests accumulated progeny were estimated by counting the number of progeny within the nests, using sectioned material isolated from animals at stages ranging from embryonic hatching until the end of the feeding larval stage. All of the postembryonic Nbs began to generate progeny at around the time of the molt to the third larval instar. Each nest added progeny at a rate that was a characteristic of its identity and segment of origin. Although all of the nests within the thorax continued to accumulate progeny throughout the feeding larval stage, several of the abdominal nests showed little or no growth following the molt to the fifth larval instar. The thymidine analog 5-bromo 2-deoxyuridine (5-BrdU) was used to estimate the mitotic rates of the identifiable Nbs. The number of labeled progeny within a nest 24 h after application of 5-BrdU ranged from a low of 1 to 2 to a high of 11 to 13 labeled cells. In some instances there was a good correlation between the estimated mitotic rate of an identified Nb and the rate of growth of its associated nest of progeny. However, several of the identifiable nests accumulated progeny at a slower rate than predicted based on the estimated mitotic rate of the Nb. Cell death appears to be responsible for slowing the growth of the nests during the feeding larval stage. We estimate that 10% to 70% of the neurons generated during the feeding larval stage degenerate within 24 h of their birth. The level of cell death observed within a nest was dependent on both its identity and its segment of origin.     

Evaluation of a Conical Mill for Screening of Direct Compression Formulations

Suitability of a Quadro Comil^TM for screening of direct compression tablet masses was evaluated with respect to alteration of particle size distribution and blending efficiency. Air jet sieving was qualijied for determination of a particle size of spraydried lactose and microcrystalline cellulose. Using a full 3¹ × 2³ factorial design not only effects of single processing parameters (output screen size, impeller shape, velocity of the mill, and type of powder), but also their respective combinations were investigated in terms of impact on particle size and flow properties (angle of repose, bulk and tapped densities). Particle sizes before and after passing the Comil were found to be normally distributed. The results indicate that the process does not allow any of the powder characteristics studied beyond normal batch-to batch variability. This refers in particular to the proportion of fines. For evaluation of the deagglomeration effectiveness, a 2³ design was implemented with iron oxide as a model drug. Homogeneity of the blends was determined optically, and after screening twice it was found to be acceptable even with this substance, which has a particularly high agglomeration tendency, high density, and small particle size. The Quadro Comil is therefore regarded as fully suitable for deagglomeration of powders in a gentle and effective manner     

The OKT3 Antibody Response Study: a multicentre study of human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) production following OKT3 use in solid organ transplantation

Human anti-murine antibody titres following patient exposure to the monoclonal antibody Orthoclone OKT3 (muromonab-CD3) are determined by laboratories using diverse analytical methods which are not standardized and whose concordance is not established. A multicentre study group therefore compared testing for IgG anti-OKT3 antibody among seven laboratories. A set of 270 sera was obtained from 30 heart, 30 kidney and 30 liver transplant recipients with no previous exposure to OKT3 who were receiving OKT3 for induction immunosuppression. Sera were collected from each patient prior to and at 24 +/- 2 days and 31 +/- 2 days following initial OKT3 exposure. Identical aliquots of all 270 sera were tested for IgG anti-OKT3 antibody by each laboratory. In addition, the limit of detection of each laboratory's method was estimated by titration of an affinity-purified IgG anti-OKT3 reference material of known concentration. Anti-OKT3 antibody formation differed greatly among the three organ groups. Cardiac patients demonstrated the least sensitization and almost exclusively lower titres, while kidney recipients had more frequent and higher titre antibody formation. Liver recipients yielded the highest sensitization rate and the most frequent high titre sera. Importantly, the seven laboratories differed widely in the number of pretreatment sera reported as positive (ranging from 0% to 41% among laboratories), the number of post-OKT3 sera reported as positive (17-63%), the number of post-OKT3 samples with titre > or = 1000 (2-31%), and the number of patients sensitized 19-69%). Concordance among laboratories was highly variable, with interlaboratory agreement ranging from 38% to 83% on the sample titres assigned to 180 post-OKT3 sera. Many of the discordant results were consistent with differences in the limit of detection of the analytical methods, which ranged from 0.19 microgram/ml to > or = 15 micrograms/ml, a nearly 100-fold difference among laboratories. This study demonstrated the presence of both good concordance and significant discordance among laboratories in determining human anti-mouse antibody titres, and demonstrated that common titre categories (100, 1000, 10,000) were not equivalent among laboratories. The level of concordance among methods should be considered when comparing anti-OKT3 antibody results from different centres and their correlation with clinical events. Universal comparative testing, patterned after proficiency testing programmes, is needed to assess differences among laboratories and to bring uniformity and a sound interpretative basis to this field of testing.     

2-year clinical evaluation of a gallium restorative alloy

PURPOSE: To assess the clinical performance of 2-year old gallium alloy restorations. Parameters evaluated include: (1) fracture at the margins, (2) tarnish, (3) surface roughness, (4) tooth fracture, (5) fracture through the body of the restoration, and (6) any medical or dental conditions arising during the study. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Nine patients received 30 Class I restorations of Galloy gallium alloy. These were placed as conservatively as possible under a rubber dam. Fifteen of the preparations were lined with a Bis-GMA resin to seal the restoration from moisture. The other 15 preparations were sealed with Amalgambond. After placement of the gallium alloy, the exposed surfaces of all restorations were sealed with the Bis-GMA resin, and the occlusion was checked. The restorations were examined at 2 weeks, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year and 2 years. RESULTS: At the 2-year recall, all restorations were intact with the exception of one tooth fracture (cause unknown). Forty-five percent of the restorations exhibited tarnish and 60% had a rough surface. The fracture at the margins of these restorations was minimal, and no significant difference could be found between those using Amalgambond and those sealed with the resin system. No medical problems were reported by the patients, and postoperative sensitivity was minimal.     

Flow reversal in the descending aorta: a guide to intraoperative assessment of aortic regurgitation with transesophageal echocardiography

This study assessed the value of biplane transesophageal echocardiographic assessment of diastolic flow reversal in the descending aorta as an alternative to Doppler color flow imaging in determining severity of aortic regurgitation. In 45 patients undergoing cardiac operations, the severity of aortic regurgitation was assessed by semiquantitative grading of the width of the Doppler color flow regurgitant jet relative to the left ventricular outflow tract, and the presence of diastolic flow reversal was assessed with pulsed-wave Doppler measurements at three sites in the descending aorta. In four patients, the diastolic flow reversal method was the only available form of assessment because of inadequate visualization of the left ventricular outflow tract beneath a mitral valve prosthesis. Diastolic flow reversal in the descending aorta was not observed in patients without aortic regurgitation and was always present in patients with severe aortic regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement successfully eliminated descending aortic flow reversal in all 19 patients in whom it was present before valve replacement. Identification of diastolic flow reversal at multiple sites in the descending aorta with biplane transesophageal echocardiography helps to confirm the presence of severe aortic regurgitation and can serve as an alternative method of assessment when visualization of the left ventricular outflow tract is impaired.