The prevalence of abnormal ECG in trained sportsmen

Background

Competitive sports training causes structural and conductive system changes manifesting by various electrocardiographic alterations. We undertook this study to assess the prevalence of abnormal ECG in trained Indian athletes and correlate it with the nature of sports training, that is endurance or strength training.

Methods

We evaluated a standard resting, lying 12 lead Electrocardiogram (ECG) in 66 actively training Indian athletes. Standard diagnostic criteria were used to define various morphological ECG abnormalities.

Results

33/66 (50%) of the athletes were undertaking endurance training while the other 33 (50%) were involved in a strength-training regimen. Overall 54/66 (81%) sportsmen had significant ECG changes. 68% of these changes were considered as normal training related features, while the remaining 32% were considered abnormal. There were seven common training related ECG changes–Sinus Bradycardia (21%), Sinus Arrhythmia (16%), 1st degree Atrioventricular Heart Block (6%), Type 1 2nd-degree Atrioventicular Heart Block (3%), Incomplete Right bundle branch block (RBBB) (24%), Early Repolarization (42%), Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH) (14%); while three abnormal ECG changes--T-wave inversion (13%), RBBB(4%), Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) with strain (29%) were noted. Early repolarization (commonest change), sinus bradycardia, and incomplete RBBB were the commoner features noticed, with a significantly higher presence in the endurance trained athletes.

Conclusion

A high proportion of athletes undergoing competitive level sports training are likely to have abnormal ECG recordings. Majority of these are benign, and related to the physiological adaptation to the extreme levels of exertion. These changes are commoner during endurance training (running) than strength training (weightlifting).     

Leukocyte Cell Population Data for Hematology Analyzer-Based Distinction of Clonal-versus-Non-Clonal Lymphocytosis: A Real-World Testing Experience

Automated blood counts revealing lymphocytosis necessitate smear reviews. Even expert morphological evaluation may however, fail to differentiate a benign-versus-malignant etiology without further testing. Automated analyser-derived quantitative data on leukocyte cell populations remain undertested for distinguishing such etiologies. Instrument manufacturers claim that if successful, they may be used to generate software flags that help under-resourced laboratories better triage hemogram specimens requiring further testing. We tested the diagnostic accuracy of volume-conductivity-scatter (VCS) indices together with complete blood count (CBC) parameters in such scenarios. We compared LH780-derived (Beckman Coulter, FL, USA) CBC + VCS parameters from patients with clonal lymphoproliferations (n = 42, including 30 chronic lymphocytic leukemia cases) versus 83 controls with absolute or relative lymphocytosis (derivation cohort). Diagnostic performances of 11 logistic regression equations derived were subsequently evaluated on two specific validation cohorts (n = 130 and n = 1465). Clonal lymphocytoses showed significantly lower hemoglobin and higher leukocyte counts but similar lymphocyte percentages (LY %) vis-à-vis controls. The most significant, albeit overlapping predictor of clonality was the absolute lymphocyte count, LY# (47.8 ± 48.4 × 10⁹/L vs. 2.9 ± 1.4 × 10⁹/L in clonal vs. benign cases). In eleven logistic regression equations constructed using four combinatorial approaches, only the models with LY# (highest sensitivity/specificity of 99.3%/100%) and the lymphocytic VCS parameters alone (highest sensitivity/specificity of 76.2%/90.2%) performed consistently in both validation cohorts. Lymphocytic VCS parameters were moderately successful in distinguishing benign-versus-malignant lymphocytes. Other approaches of CBC-plus-VCS parameters did not sustain their initial excellent performances in the validation cohorts, highlighting a need for careful appraisal and better standardization of automated cellular analysis technologies.     

Hypoglossal nerve stimulation improves obstructive sleep apnea: 12‐month outcomes

Reduced upper airway muscle activity during sleep is a key contributor to obstructive sleep apnea pathogenesis. Hypoglossal nerve stimulation activates upper airway dilator muscles, including the genioglossus, and has the potential to reduce obstructive sleep apnea severity. The objective of this study was to examine the safety, feasibility and efficacy of a novel hypoglossal nerve stimulation system (HGNS^®; Apnex Medical, St Paul, MN, USA) in treating obstructive sleep apnea at 12 months following implantation. Thirty‐one subjects (35% female, age 52.4 ± 9.4 years) with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea and unable to tolerate positive airway pressure underwent surgical implantation and activation of the hypoglossal nerve stimulation system in a prospective single‐arm interventional trial. Primary outcomes were changes in obstructive sleep apnea severity (apnea–hypopnea index, from in‐laboratory polysomnogram) and sleep‐related quality of life [Functional Outcomes of Sleep Questionnaire (FOSQ)]. Hypoglossal nerve stimulation was used on 86 ± 16% of nights for 5.4 ± 1.4 h per night. There was a significant improvement (P < 0.001) from baseline to 12 months in apnea–hypopnea index (45.4 ± 17.5 to 25.3 ± 20.6 events h^?1) and Functional Outcomes of Sleep Questionnaire score (14.2 ± 2.0 to 17.0 ± 2.4), as well as other polysomnogram and symptom measures. Outcomes were stable compared with 6 months following implantation. Three serious device‐related adverse events occurred: an infection requiring device removal; and two stimulation lead cuff dislodgements requiring replacement. There were no significant adverse events with onset later than 6 months following implantation. Hypoglossal nerve stimulation demonstrated favourable safety, feasibility and efficacy.     

Renin angiotensin system modulates mTOR pathway through AT2R in HIVAN

Mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) has been reported to contribute to the development of HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN). We hypothesized that HIV may be activating renal tissue mTOR pathway through renin angiotensin system (RAS) via Angiotensin Receptor Type II receptor (AT2R). Renal tissues of Vpr transgenic and Tg26 (HIVAN) mice displayed enhanced phosphorylation of mTOR and p70S6K. Aliskiren, a renin inhibitor attenuated phosphorylation of both mTOR and p70S6K in renal tissues of HIVAN mice. Interestingly, Angiotensin Receptor Type I (AT1R) blockade did not modulate renal tissue phosphorylation of mTOR in HIVAN mice; on the other hand, AT2R blockade attenuated renal tissue phosphorylation of mTOR in HIVAN mice. In vitro studies, both renin and Ang II displayed enhanced mouse tubular cell (MTC) phosphorylation of p70S6K in a dose dependent manner. HIV/MTC also displayed enhanced phosphorylation of both mTOR and p70S6K; interestingly this effect of HIV was further enhanced by losartan (an AT1R blocker). On the other hand, AT2R blockade attenuated HIV-induced tubular cell phosphorylation of mTOR and p70S6K, whereas, AT2R agonist enhanced phosphorylation of mTOR and p70S6K. These findings indicate that HIV stimulates mTOR pathway in HIVAN through the activation of renin angiotensin system via AT2R.     

300,000 IU or 600,000 IU of oral vitamin D3 for treatment of nutritional rickets: A randomized controlled trial

Objective

To evaluate the non-inferiority of a lower therapeutic dose (300,000 IU) in comparison to standard dose (600,000) IU of Vitamin D for increasing serum 25(OH) D levels and achieving radiological recovery in nutritional rickets.

Design

Randomized, open-labeled, controlled trial.

Setting

Tertiary care hospital.

Participants

76 children (median age 12 mo) with clinical and radiologically confirmed rickets.

Intervention

Oral vitamin D3 as 300,000 IU (Group 1; n=38) or 600,000 IU (Group 2; n=38) in a single day.

Outcome variables

Primary: Serum 25(OH)D, 12 weeks after administration of vitamin D3; Secondary: Radiological healing and serum parathormone at 12 weeks; and clinical and biochemical adverse effects.

Results

Serum 25(OH)D levels [geometric mean (95% CI)] increased significantly from baseline to 12 weeks after therapy in both the groups [Group 1: 7.58 (5.50–10.44) to 16.06 (12.71–20.29) ng/mL, P<0.001]; Group 2: 6.57 (4.66–9.25) to 17.60 (13.71–22.60, P<0.001]. The adjusted ratio of geometric mean serum 25(OH)D levels at 12 weeks between the groups (taking baseline value as co-variate) was 0.91 (95% CI: 0.65–1.29). Radiological healing occurred in all children by 12 weeks. Both groups demonstrated significant (P<0.05) and comparable fall in the serum parathormone and alkaline phosphatase levels at 12 weeks. Relative change [ratio of geometric mean (95% CI)] in serum PTH and alkaline phosphatase, 12 weeks after therapy, were 0.98 (0.7–1.47) and 0.92 (0.72–1.19), respectively. The serum 25(OH)D levels were deficient (<20 ng/mL) in 63% (38/60) children after 12 weeks of intervention [Group 1: 20/32 (62.5%); Group 2: 18/28 (64.3%)]. No major clinical adverse effects were noticed in any of the children. Hypercalcemia was documented in 2 children at 4 weeks (1 in each Group) and 3 children at 12 weeks (1 in Group 1 and 2 in Group 2). None of the participants had hypercalciuria or hypervitaminosis D.

Conclusion

A dose of 300,000 IU of vitamin D3 is comparable to 600,000 IU, administered orally, over a single day, for treating rickets in under-five children although there is an unacceptably high risk of hypercalcemia in both groups. None of the regime is effective in normalization of vitamin D status in majority of patients, 3 months after administering the therapeutic dose.     

Development of a Specimen-Sparing Multichannel Bead Assay to Detect Antiparasite IgG4 for the Diagnosis of Schistosoma and Wuchereria Infections on the Coast of Kenya

To better delineate the impact of parasitic coinfection in coastal Kenya, we developed a novel specimen-sparing bead assay using multiplex flow immunoassay (MFI) technology to simultaneously measure serum or plasma immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) against Brugia malayi antigen (BMA) and Schistosoma haematobium soluble worm antigen (SWAP). Properties of the bead assay were estimated by latent class analysis using data from S. haematobium egg counts/filarial rapid diagnostic cards (RDTs), parasite-specific enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs), and the multichannel IgG4 assay. For schistosomiasis, the bead assay had an estimated sensitivity of 81% and a specificity of 45%, and it was more sensitive than ELISA or urine egg counts for diagnosing infection. For filariasis, it had a sensitivity of 86% and a specificity of 39%, and it was more sensitive than ELISA or RDT. Measuring antibody by MFI is feasible and may provide more accurate epidemiological information than current parasitological tests, especially in the setting of low-intensity infections.